Ah, Michel, it seems to me that if the man in question fathered children upon the wife he married, and that wife is the one who bore the pregnancy and birthed the children, then the man is male, at least functionally so.
Granted, it is not 100% conclusive but genealogical data seldom is in my own experience
However, I doubt it is worth debating, since the records issued indicate he was male -- according to what we were told -- and I'd suggest simply make him male on his profile. Best to go with the evidence. Think that's Occam's Razor? Something like that