Why did surname of Fite change to Bethel?

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Phillip Fite (b. abt 1760)'s son John Fite (b. abt 1798) is shown as John Fite Bethel(l). How and why did the name change?
in Genealogy Help by

2 Answers

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A general comment about name changes - ppl did often include the name of an influential relative in their children's names eg Elizabeth Armstrong Haggerston (a relative of mine) Armstrong was a maternal family name which the family wanted to recognize or perhaps there was a wealthy maternal relative who might be influenced by the use of the name eg a maiden aunt.

Sometimes this was reversed and the family name from the maternal line becomes the name used in the paternal line, for a variety of reasons - so the name is not lost, to make someone an heir where there are no other 'suitable' candidates. I have a male ancestory who on marrige took the name of his more illustrious wife - their first born had both family names.

Certainly this kind of behaviour would have been reasonably common in the 1700's I would be looking for Bethel connections.

Good luck
by Wendy Hampton G2G6 Mach 2 (25.3k points)
0 votes
I am a Bethel and this is the first I have seen of Fite changed to Bethel. The Bethels were slave owners and I wonder if this could have anything to do with this name change?? I have a DNA match with a person who is related to the Fite Bethel line.
by

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